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Syllabus Sample Benchmarks

Verified practice questions for UPSC Drug Inspector 2019 Previous Year Paper (Official) – Complete Practice Test | 150 MCQs. Review these sample modules to test your foundational knowledge.

Q1

A non-volatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection, it produces general anaesthesia for 10 minutes. Which process is responsible for termination of its action?

AMetabolism in liver
BExcretion by kidney
CPlasma Protein Binding
DRedistribution
View Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer Node:

Redistribution

Academic Rationale:

For highly lipid soluble drugs like thiopental, the termination of action is primarily due to redistribution from the brain (highly perfused) to less perfused tissues like muscle and fat. Metabolism and excretion are too slow to explain the rapid offset (10 minutes). Plasma protein binding affects distribution but not termination directly.

Q2

Aspirin overdose is characterized by:

AHyperthermia, metabolic acidosis and coma
BFever, hepatic dysfunction
CRash, interstitial nephritis and acute renal failure
DRapid, fulminant hepatic failure
View Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer Node:

Hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis and coma

Academic Rationale:

Aspirin (salicylate) overdose causes respiratory alkalosis initially (direct stimulation of the respiratory center), followed by metabolic acidosis due to uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation. Severe poisoning presents with hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, altered mental status, and coma. Option C describes hypersensitivity-related reactions rather than overdose.

Q3

A 40-year-old patient complains of severe pain along left side of jaw and face. The best choice for this neuralgic pain is:

AMethadone
BTramadol
CLorazepam
DCarbamazepine
View Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer Node:

Carbamazepine

Academic Rationale:

Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia (severe stabbing facial pain). It stabilizes hyperexcitable neuronal membranes. Methadone (A) and tramadol (B) are opioids for moderate-severe pain but not first-line for neuralgia. Lorazepam (C) is a benzodiazepine for anxiety.

Q4

The first Phenothiazine derivative introduced into the therapy of psychotic disorders was:

APromazine
BChlorpromazine
CTriflupromazine
DThioridazine
View Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer Node:

Chlorpromazine

Academic Rationale:

Chlorpromazine (Thorazine/Largactil) was the first phenothiazine antipsychotic introduced into clinical practice in the early 1950s. It revolutionized the treatment of schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. Promazine, Triflupromazine, and Thioridazine were introduced later.

Q5

Which one of the following is NOT a rapid acting insulin?

AInsulin lispro
BInsulin aspart
CInsulin glulisine
DInsulin glargine
View Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer Node:

Insulin glargine

Academic Rationale:

Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin with a duration of approximately 24 hours. Lispro, Aspart, and Glulisine are rapid-acting insulin analogues with onset in about 15 minutes.

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